Tuesday, December 25, 2001

JIPMER 2001 Medical PG Entrance Questions from aippg.com

JIPMER paper 2001 by aippg.com 
 
1)Vocalis Muscle is a part of
 
a)Thyroarytenoid
 
b)Cricoarytenoid
 
c)Transverse arytenoid
 
d)Posterior cricoarytenoid
 
 
 
2)Sumatriptan is contraindicated in
 
a)Asthma
 
b)DM
 
c)Coronary artery disease
 
d)peripheral vascular disease
 
3)Non granular fungal disease is
 
a)Cryptococcus
 
b)Blastomycosis
 
c)Candida
 
d)
 
 
 
4)All following are true of seminiferous tubules except
 
a)Sertoli cells
 
b)Leydig cells
 
c)spermatid
 
d)Spermatogonia
 
 
 
5)Sub-poena is a
 
a)Legal
 
b)medicolegal
 
c)Medical
 
d)first info report
 
 
 
6)Refsum disease is due to defect in enzyme
 
a)Phytanic acid oxidase
 
b)
 
c)
 
d)
 
 
 
7)Skin supplied over the angle of mandible and parotid area is by
 
a)Greater auricular
 
b)posterior auricular
 
c)auriculotemporal
 
d)facial
 
 
 
8)Adductor pollicis is supplied by
 
a)Superficial branch of ulnar nerve
 
b)deep branch of ulnar nerve
 
c)radial nerve d)median nerve
 
 
 
9)Ring Scotoma is seen in
 
a)Retinitis Pigmentosa
 
b)
 
c)
 
d)
 
 
 
10) In a patient, highest visual morbidity is seen in
 
a)Nuclear cataract
 
b)Intumescent cataract
 
c)Posterior subcapsular
 
d)
 
 
 
11)Klumpke paralysis is
 
a)C5,C6
 
B)C6,C7
 
C)C8,T1
 
D)T1,T2
 
 
 
12)For the treatment of a patient with after cataract which laser is
used
 
a)LASIC
 
b)YAG
 
c)excimer
 
d)Argon
 
 
 
13)Most malignant breast tumor of the following is
 
a)inflammatory carcinoma
 
b)Mucinous carcinoma
 
c)Colloid carcinoma
 
d)Paget's` disease of breast.
 
 
 
14)Full thickness graft means:
 
a)Only epidermis
 
b)epidermis and superficial dermis
 
c)epidermis + whole dermis
 
d)epidermis, dermis and subcutaneous tissue
 
 
 
15)A 50yr old woman weighing 50kg and having almost complete burns
comes to burns ward. According to Parklands formula ,the amt. of fluid for
resuscitation in 24hrs.
 
a)5L
 
b)10L
 
c)12L
 
d)14L
 
 
 
16)Investigation of choice for DVT is
 
a)Duplex
 
b)Venogram
 
c)MRI
 
c)radioisotope scan
 
 
 
17)After closed reduction of supracondylar fracture of humerus, flexion
greater than 90 degree causes disappearance of radial pulse. The next
line of management is
 
a)Conservative
 
b)Exploration for arterial rupture
 
c)Keep elbow at 90 in cast
 
d)Open reduction & internal fixation.
 
 
 
18)Open reduction & fixation does all except
 
a)consolidation
 
b)Stability
 
c)better function
 
d)Better alignment
 
 
 
19) In fracture shaft of femur, which nail is commonly used for ORIF
 
a)Kuntshner nail
 
b)Austin Moore pine
 
c)K. wire
 
d)Smith Peterson nail
 
 
 
20)Soap Bubble appearance is seen
 
a)Giant cell tumor
 
b)osteoclastoma
 
c)
 
d)
 
 
 
21)Snow storm appearance on CXR is seen in
 
a)anthracosis
 
b)asbestosis
 
c)Silicosis
 
d)Bagassosis
 
 
 
22)Housemaid Knee is inflammation of
 
a)prepatellar bursa
 
b)Suprapatellar bursa
 
c)Infrapatellar bursa
 
d)anserine bursa
 
 
 
23) Height increase in adolescent/year is
 
a)8.5 cm
 
b)9.5
 
c)10.5
 
d)13.5
 
 
 
24)Patient with genotype XO will have following phenotype except
 
a)Tall stature
 
b)Broad Chest
 
c)Webbed neck
 
d)Lymphedema
 
 
 
25)treatment of carcinoma thyroid using radioactive iodine is
 
a) I131
 
b) I125
 
c) I133
 
 
 
26) solitary nodule of thyroid in a male aged 40yr from a non-endemic
area would most likely have
 
a)MNG
 
b)papillary ca Thyroid
 
c)follicular ca
 
d)
 
 
 
27)In assessment of gestational age of a neonate the following all seen
except
 
a)Breast bud
 
b)Ocular
 
c)Genitalia
 
d)scrotal skin
 
 
 
28)On USG, the appendix is seen, it is most likely due to
 
a)Retrocecal appendix
 
b)Acute appendicitis
 
d)preileal appendix
 
 
 
29)Vesicular lesion is seen in
 
a)Primary syphilis
 
b)secondary syphilis
 
c)tertiary syphilis
 
d)congenital syphilis
 
 
 
30)In villous adenoma of rectum which of the following is seen
 
a) Hypokalemia
 
b)Hyperkalemia
 
c)hypochloremic alkalosis
 
d)
 
 
 
31)The best view on X-ray to view pituitary fossa is
 
a)lateral skull X-ray
 
b)Towne's view
 
c)schuller's view
 
d)
 
 
 
32)Supratendinitis calcification is due to deposition of
 
a)Ca2+ pyrophosphate
 
b) Ca2+ hydroxyapatite
 
c)Ca2+ oxalate
 
d)
 
 
 
33) all the following are beta-blockers except
 
a)Esmolol
 
b)sotalol
 
c) celiprolol
 
d)bambuterol
 
 
 
34)Unpleasant dreams and hallucinations occur after which anesthesia
 
a)Ketamine
 
b)Halothane
 
c)thiopentone
 
d)
 
 
 
35)Longest acting antihistamine is
 
a)Cetrizine
 
b)Astemizole
 
c)terfenadine
 
d)acrivastive
 
 
 
36) The most common carcinoma of sinuses is
 
a) squamous cell carcinoma
 
b) adeno carcinoma
 
c) transitional cell carcinoma
 
d)
 
 
 
38) All are specific to TB except
 
a) Epituberculosis
 
b) Phlycten
 
c) Erythema nodosum
 
d) lupus vulgaris
 
 
 
39) The following macrolides are used for toxoplasmosis except
 
a) Erythromycin
 
b) clarithromycin
 
c) Azithromycin
 
d) spiramycin
 
 
 
40) Following are third generation cephalosporins except
 
a) cefuroxime
 
b) ceftriaxone
 
c) ceftazidime
 
d) cefotaxime
 
 
 
41) The mechanism of action of cephalosporin is
 
a) interferes with cell wall synthesis
 
b) inhibition of DNA gyrase
 
c)
 
d)
 
 
 
42) Evidence of ovulation has occurred is all except
 
a) 10 mm graffian follicles on USG**
 
b) progesterone > 5ng/ml
 
c) corpus luteum
 
d) Biphasic increase in temperature
 
 
 
43) Objective evidence of hearing loss is all except
 
a) pure tone audiometry
 
b) BAER
 
c) otoacoustic emission
 
d)
 
 
 
44) Vestibular anus is
 
a) imperforate anus
 
b) high anorectal
 
c) low anorectal
 
d) mid anorectal
 
 
 
45) Brawny swelling below the angle of mandible likely diagnosis is
 
a) Vincent's angina
 
b) Ludwig's angina
 
c) ranula
 
d) hydrocele of neck
 
 
 
46) Apraxia is
 
a) normal sensory system, normal motor system, abnormal cerebellar
system
 
b) normal sensory system, abnormal motor system, normal cerebellar
system
 
c) abnormal sensory system, normal motor system, normal cerebellar
system
 
d) normal sensory system, normal motor system, normal cerebellar system
 
 
 
47) Alexythymia is
 
a) inability to express ones own emotion
 
b)
 
c)
 
d)
 
 
 
48) Akathesia is
 
a)
 
b) a state motor or verbal restlessness
 
c) cogwheel rigidity
 
d)
 
 
 
49)infantile autism is seen in
 
a) dysthymic personality
 
b) personality disorder
 
b) paranoid personality
 
d) behavioral disorder
 
 
 
50) In pulmonary embolism, the receptor involving causing reflex
hyperventilation is
 
a) J-receptor
 
b) slow adapting receptor
 
c) fast adapting receptor
 
d) Irritant receptors
 
 
 
51) Cazt** channel defect is seen in
 
a) hypokalemic periodic paralysis
 
b) hyperkalemic periodic paralysis
 
c) paramyotonia congenita
 
d)
 
 
 
52) Which is not an aldolase
 
a) glucose
 
b) Mannose
 
c) fructose
 
d) starch
 
 
 
53) Excitatory neurotransmitter in brain is
 
a) GABA
 
b) Glycine
 
c) glutamate
 
d) Aspartate
 
 
 
54) Enlarged adenoid causes the following complications except
 
a) CSOM
 
b) maxillary sinusitis
 
c)
 
d)
 
 
 
55) In an elderly hypertension patient with arteriosclerosis renin
level in blood will be
 
a) high
 
b) low
 
c) normal
 
d) not related to HT
 
 
 
56) A patient comes with recurrent abdominal pain, and urinary
examination reveals Ehrlich aldehyde test (+) for urobilonogens. The diagnosis
is
 
a) porphyria
 
b) renal calculi
 
c) cholelithiasis
 
d)
 
 
 
57) In urticaria pigmentosa, the cell most commonly seen in skin on
microscopy is
 
a) Mast cell
 
b) Langerhan's cell
 
c) Langhan's cell
 
d)
 
 
 
58)lagopathalmos is seen in
 
a) leprosy
 
b) syphilis
 
c) peripheral neuritis
 
d) HZV infection
 
 
 
59) Topical steroids is used in
 
a) Interstitial keratitis
 
b) bacterial keratitis
 
c) pendrotic
 
d) herpetic
 
 
 
60) An elderly male with dry skin and fissuring scaly skin is likely to
have
 
a) nummular eczema
 
b) venous eczema
 
c) asteatotic eczema
 
d)
 
 
 
61) In myasthenia gravis, true is
 
a) antibody is present against nicotinic receptor
 
b) decreased Acetylcholine release
 
c) decreased no of receptors
 
d) end organ resistance
 
 
 
 62) Insulin sensitivity increases on following treat except
 
a) metformin
 
b) acarbose
 
c) exercise
 
d) fasting
 
 
 
63) All the following are anticonvulsants except
 
a) lamotrigine
 
b) methyl phenytoline
 
c) vigabatrin
 
d) topiramate
 
 
 
64) Side effect of valvular heart disease is seen with
 
a) fenfluramine
 
b) methylphenidate
 
c) amphetamine
 
d)
 
 
 
65) Side effect of acute pancreatitis is due to following anti HIV
drugs
 
a) lamivudine
 
b) zidovudine
 
c) didanosine
 
d)
 
 
 
66) "milk spots" on the omentum consists of
 
a) macrophage
 
b) neutrophils
 
c) lymphocyte
 
d)
 
 
 
67) longest acting muscle relaxant is
 
a) pancuronium
 
b) mivacurium
 
c) vecuronium
 
d)
 
 
 
68)Genital prolapse in a female can be due to all except
 
a) Ascites
 
b)complete perineal tear
 
c) chronic cough
 
d)
 
 
 
69) Tubal patency test is done by which test?
 
a) sion test
 
b) frei's test
 
c) bonney's test
 
d) three swab test
 
 
 
70) cells are most susceptible to radiation in which phase
 
a) M phase
 
b) G2 phase
 
c) G1 phase
 
d) S phase
 
Ans.        Ref:
 
 
 
71) end product of ?- hydroxylation is
 
a) Acetyl CoA + propionyl CoA
 
b) Acetyl CoA + succinyl CoA
 
c) Acetyl CoA +
 
d) Acetyl CoA + malonyl CoA
 
 
 
72) Morrison pouch is
 
a) subphrenic space
 
b) posterior to lateral lobe of liver
 
c) lesser sac
 
 
 
73) hemoptysis in mitral stenosis is due to
 
a) Pulmonary arterial hypertension
 
b) Pulmonary arterial hypertension + left atrial hypertension
 
c) Left ventricular pressure
 
d)
 
 
 
74) In massive pericardial effusion all are seen except a) on
fluoroscopy less prominent vascular marking
 
b) CT ratio >0.5
 
c) CP angles acute
 
d) Plethoric pulmonary fields
 
 
 
75) single plate coated with ammonium***** is present in all except
 
a) X-ray
 
b) MMR
 
c) CT scan
 
d) USG film
 
 
 
76)Best view on x-ray to view bilateral auditory oscines /Eustachian
tubes? is
 
a) occipito frontal
 
b) fronto occipital
 
c) submento vertical
 
d)
 
 
 
77) best view for pituitary fossa on x-ray is
 
a) lateral skull x-ray
 
b)
 
c) sella view
 
d)
 
 
 
78) Gram negative antigen is injected in a rabbit after 2
weeks****question not complete****
 
a) schwartzmann reaction- ans
 
b) Schultz-dale phenomenon
 
c) P-K-reaction
 
d)
 
 
 
79) The most common cause of spasm of psoas in childhood is
 
a) trauma
 
b) tuberculosis psoas
 
c) acute appendicitis
 
d) pyogenic psoas abscess
 
 
 
80) which leucotriene is the adhesion factor for the neutrophil on the
cell surface to attach endothelium
 
a) B4
 
b) C4
 
c)D4
 
d) E4
 
 
 
81) In the following conditions, bone matrix is reduced except
 
a) osteoporosis
 
b) osteomalacia
 
c) hyperparathyroidism
 
d) osteopetrosis
 
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82) which one is FAD dependent reaction
 
a) succinyl CoA fumarate
 
b)
 
c) d)
 
 
 
83) which of the following is formed by the intestinal mucosal cells on
absorption of dietary lipids
 
a) chylomicrons
 
b) VLDL
 
c) HDL
 
d) LDL
 
 
 
84) high risk factor for coronary artery diseases are all except
 
a) low homocysteine level
 
b) cholesterol > 250 mg
 
c)
 
d)
 
 
 
85) In osteomalacia, all the following seen except
 
a) looser zones
 
b) high alkaline phosphate levels
 
c)
 
d)
 
 
 
86) In a patient with solitary nodule of thyroid, investigation of
choice is
 
a) FNAC
 
b) USG
 
c) CT
 
d) Radioisotope scan
 
 
 
87) how many double bonds are present in arachidonic acid?
 
a) One
 
b) two
 
c) Three
 
d) Four
 
 
 
88) In elective tracheostomy, incision is taken on
 
a) cricothyroid membrane
 
b) C1 & C2
 
c) c2 & c4
 
d)
 
 
 
89) Autoinduction of biotransformation and action as a hormone is seen
in
 
a) carbamazepine
 
b) cimetidine
 
c) corticosteroid.
 
 
 
90) G-6-P-D inheritance is
 
a) X-linked - recessive
 
b) autosomal dominant
 
c) autosomal recessive
 
d) x linked dominant
 
 
 
91) oral hairy leucoplakia & whitish plaque on the tongue and palate
seen gives clue to most likely diagnosis of
 
a) HIV infection
 
b) HTLV - 1
 
c) infectious mononucleosis
 
d)
 
 
 
92) most common organism causing spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is
 
a) staphylococcus
 
b)
 
c) salmonella
 
d) streptococcus
 
 
 
93) symblepharon is caused by
 
a) diphtheria
 
b) gonococci
 
c) chlamydia
 
d) opthalmia neonatorum
 
 
 
94) jargon aphasia is seen in
 
a) wenicke's
 
b) broca's aphasia
 
c) conduction aphasia
 
 
 
95) In koraskoff psychosis seen is
 
a) global deterioration intelligence
 
b) impaired recall & new ability to learn
 
c)
 
d)
 
 
 
96) multiple calcification in the brain or cystic calcification in the
brain or comma shaped calcification seen in
 
a) CMV
 
b) neurocysticercosis
 
c) tuberous sclerosis
 
d) toxoplasmosis
 
 
 
97)On CT scan, all are seen as hypodense area except
 
a) cerebral hemorrhage
 
b) glioblastoma
 
c) cerebral edema
 
d) cerebral infarct
 
 
 
98) hypertensive bleed mostly occurs in
 
a)putamen
 
b) pons
 
c) cortex
 
d) thalamus
 
 
 
99) back-wash ileitis is seen in
 
a) crohn's diseases
 
b) ulcerative colitis
 
c)
 
d)
 
 
 
100) leukemoid reaction type 2 in leprosy is due to
 
a) type I hypersensitivity
 
b) Type II hypersensitivity
 
c)type III hypersensitivity
 
d) type IV hypersensitivity
 
 
 
101) systematic desensitization as form of therapy is done in
 
a) phobia
 
b) obsessive compulsive disorder
 
c)
 
d)
 
 
 
102) morbid jealousy is seen in
 
a) alcoholism
 
b) persons who are isolated from society
 
c)
 
d)
 
 
 
103) respiratory alkalosis is seen in
 
a) duodenal obstruction
 
b) early salicylism
 
c) diarrhea
 
d)
 
 
 
104) dopamine is highest in
 
a)striatum
 
b) cerebellum
 
c) caudate
 
d)
 
 
 
105) IL-1 & TNF ? causes
 
a) increasing capillary permeability
 
c) acute phase reactants
 
b) chemotaxis
 
d) activate endothelium
 
 
 
106) thimble pitting nails are seen in
 
a) psoriasis
 
b) tinea versicolor
 
c)lichen planus
 
d)tuberculosis
 
 
 
107) Ridley-Jopling classification includes all except
 
a) lepromatous leprosy
 
b) borderline borderline
 
c) tuberculoid
 
d) neuritic
 
 
 
108) which of the following is type IV hyper sensitivity
 
a)
 
b)
 
c)
 
d) contact dermatitis
 
 
 
109) Pressure necrosis which causes venous flow to stop during
endotracheal intubation occurs at
 
a) 20 - 30 mm Hg
 
b) 15 - 20 mm Hg
 
c) 30-40 mm Hg
 
d) 16 -15 mm Hg
 
 
 
110) diagnosis of mucopolysacharridoses can be done by examination of
 
a) cornea
 
b) skin
 
c) bone
 
d) face
 
 
 
111) cadaveric position of vocal cords occurs in
 
a) recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
 
b) recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy + superior laryngeal nerve palsy
 
c)
 
d)
 
 
 
112) most common site of pelvic abscess is in
 
a) ishiorectal fossa
 
b) perianal
 
c)
 
d)
 
 
 
113) most important sensory organ in the ampulla is
 
a) organ of corti
 
b) macula
 
c)otolithi
 
d) crista
 
 
 
114) carotid body baroreceptor is most sensitive to
 
a)mean blood pressure
 
b) diastolic blood pressure
 
c) systolic blood pressure
 
d) Pulse pressure
 
 
 
115) the following are derived from endoderm except
 
a) liver
 
b) kidney
 
c) pancreas
 
d)urinary bladder
 
 
 
116)human placenta is
 
a) hemochorial
 
b) endothen - esdothelima
 
c) chorio - endothelial
 
d)
 
 
 
117)In malaria acquired by transfusion, the infective form is
 
a) sporozoites
 
b) shistozoites
 
c) gametocytes
 
d) merozoites
 
 
 
118) inhibition of prolactin is caused by
 
a) dopamine
 
b) dobutamine
 
c)
 
d)
 
 
 
119) In after coming, head best forceps used for delivery is
 
a) piper's forceps
 
b) kielland's forceps
 
c) wrigley' forceps
 
d)
 
 
 
120) longest diameter of the skull is
 
a) suboccipital bregmatic
 
b) occipital frontal
 
c) bitemporal
 
d) biparietal
 
 
 
121)bishop score is used to evaluate
 
a) cervix status
 
b) uterine contraction
 
c) fetal well being
 
d)
 
 
 
122) the management of eclampsia includes all except
 
a) control of convulsion
 
b) prolongation of pregnancy
 
c) control of BP
 
d) delivery of fetus
 
 
 
123) The most common cause of vesicovaginal fistula in developing
countries is
 
a) pressure necrosis of urethra during obstructed labor
 
b) forceps delivery
 
c)
 
d)
 
 
 
124) shoulder dystocia occurs in delivery of fetus with
 
a) anencephaly
 
b) hydrocephalus
 
c) fetal ascites
 
d)
 
 
 
125) benign prost hyperplasia occur in the
 
a) periurethral transitional zone
 
b) cortex
 
c) posterior lobe
 
d)
 
 
 
126) tetany is seen in all except
 
a) hypoparathyroidism
 
b) full strength milk given in neonate
 
c)
 
d)
 
 
 
127) benign intracranial hypertension is seen in all except
 
a) hypertvitaminosis A
 
b) steroid therapy
 
c) OCP
 
d)
 
 
 
128) the most common breech presentation in a nulliparous woman is
 
a) frank breech
 
b) complete breech
 
c) footling
 
d)
 
 
 
129) In supra condylar fracture, the x-ray view of which helps in the
next line of management
 
a) baumman's angle
 
b) cobb's angle
 
c) cowen's angle
 
d)
 
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130) calculate the pearl index if 6 pregnancy occurs in 1200 females
practicing contraception for 1 year
 
a) 6
 
b) 12
 
c) 18
 
d) 24
 
 
 
131) In minilap procedure, the most common method successfully used is
 
a) uchida
 
b) pomeroy's
 
c)irving's
 
d)
 
 
 
132) deep transverse arrest occurs in
 
a) android
 
b) anthropoid
 
c) gynecoid
 
d) flat pelvis
 
 
 
133) false positive rinne's test occur in
 
a) unilateral conductive deafness
 
b) unilateral sensory neural deafness
 
c) bilateral conductive deafness
 
d) bilateral sensory neural deafness
 
 
 
134) A nulliparous female aged 30 years develops IInd degree UV
prolapse. The operative procedure done is
 
a) cervicopexy
 
b)LeForte
 
c)Manchester
 
 
 
135) following are true of hemorrhoids except
 
a) they are arteriolar dilatations
 
b) they are common causes of painless bleeding
 
c) they cannot be per rectally palpated
 
 
 
136) waves on EEG during NREM period of sleep is
 
a) alpha
 
b) beta
 
c) delta
 
d) theta
 
 
 
137) following is true of hormone leptin except
 
a) it is found in increased levels in obese
 
b) it's site of action is hypothalmus
 
c) it is produced by adipose all
 
d) it increases appetite.
 
 
 
138) function of brown fat is
 
a) glycogenosis
 
b) gluconeogenesis
 
c)
 
d) thermogenesis
 
 
 
139) The most common cause for stridor in the early day of life is
 
a) laryngomalacia
 
b)esophago- tracheal fistula
 
c) laryngeal stenosis
 
d)
 
 
 
140) commonest sources of lead to cause increased blood level is from
 
a) air
 
b) lead paints
 
c) water
 
d)
 
 
 
141) The incisura of arterial pulse corresponds with
 
a)S1
 
b) S2
 
c) opening snap
 
4) S3
 
 
 
142) the one organism which is responsible for coronary artery disease
 
a) chlamydia
 
b) klebsiella
 
c) E coli
 
d) mycoplasma
 
 
 
143) to build a genome library using digested chromosome into
fragments, the enzyme used is
 
a) DNA polymerase
 
b) RNA restriction endonuclease
 
d)
 
 
 
144) all the following are suggestive of urethral injury except
 
a) blood at meatus
 
b) haematoma of scrotum
 
c) high prostate on PR
 
d) blood in rectum
 
 
 
145) to assess the refraction state of eye, the investigation done is
 
a) USG - Bscan
 
b) retinoscopy
 
c) binoculoscopy
 
d) opthalmoscopy
 
 
 
146) which of the following has the worst prognosis
 
a) rolandic epilepsy
 
b) versive epilepsy
 
c) absence epilepsy
 
d)
 
Ans.        Ref:
 
147) which of the following has worst prognoses in carcinoma lung
 
a) squamous cell carcinoma
 
b) large cell carcinoma
 
c) small cell carcinoma
 
d)adenocarcinoma
 
 
 
148) Herbert's pit is seen in
 
a) vernal conjunctivitis
 
b) atopic conjunctivitis
 
c) gonococcal conjunctivitis
 
d)chlamydial conjunctivitis
 
 
 
149) the amount of rads required for treatment of oropharyngeal
carcinoma is
 
a) 3000 - 4000 rads
 
b) 4000- 5000 rads
 
c) 5000 - 6000
 
d) 6000 - 7000
 
 
 
150) prolonged ST segment with T wave seen in
 
a) hypokalemia
 
b) hyperkalemia
 
c) hypomagnesemia
 
d) hypocalcemia
 
 
 
151) In a meconium aspirated baby following are investigations. pO2=50,
pCO2=60 & blood pH=7.1. the next line of management of giving I V
infusion to correct this condition is
 
a) NAHCO3 solution
 
b) ringer lactate
 
c) CPAP
 
d) endotracheal intubation & IPPV
 
 
 
152) which of the following hormones increase during sleep
 
a) insulin
 
b) ACTH
 
c) GH
 
d) melatonin
 
 
 
153) bromocriptine is used to suppress prolactin
 
a) acts as agonist to dopamine receptors
 
b)
 
c)
 
d)
 
 
 
154) in chronic folliculitis the treatment of choice is
 
a)
 
b)
 
c) cloxacillin
 
d) vancomycin
 
Ans.        Ref:
 
155) on X-ray calcification of breast is seen. Likely cause is
 
a) chronic breast abscess
 
b) tuberculosis of breast
 
c) periductal carcinoma
 
d)
 
 
 
156) epidermolysis bullosa is due to
 
a) autoimmune disease
 
b) atopic disease
 
c) infective agent
 
d) genetic fragility of skin
 
 
 
157) A child suffering from marasmus was given high protein diet. The
metabolic change likely is
 
a) hyperargininemia
 
b) hyperammonemia
 
c) hyperlysinemia
 
d) hypernatremia.
 
 
 
158) the ORS fluid used for a marasmic child lacks in (racemol)
 
a) amino acids
 
b) sodium
 
c) copper
 
d) magnesium
 
 
 
159) which of the following cell has both T lymphocyte and B lymphocyte
function
 
a) plasma cell
 
b) T- lymphoblast cell
 
c)B-lymphoblast cell
 
d) NK cell
 
 
 
160) salmonella osteomyelitis occurs in
 
a) sickle cell d
 
b) beta thalassemia
 
c) sideroblastic anemia
 
d)
 
 
 
161) following are louse borne disease
 
a) endemic typhus
 
b) KFD
 
c) lyme's disease
 
d)
 
 
 
162) the treatment of choice in angiofibroma is a 12 year old boy is
 
a) radio treatment
 
b) chemo treatment
 
c) embolisation of inferior palatine artery
 
d) surgery
 
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163) A young women, 30 yrs old complains of pain in the left knee joint
which increases after exercise since 4 months. An x-ray shows eccentric
bone cyst. The likely diagnosis is
 
a) aneurysmal bone cyst
 
b) unicameral bone cyst
 
c)
 
d)
 
 
 
164) The term family size in demographic parlance means
 
a) the total number of children a women has borne at a point of time
 
b) the total number of children of couples
 
c) the total number of children by women borne in a female between 15-
45 yrs
 
Ans.        Ref:
 
165) the approximate magnitude of completed family size from
demographic point view is given by
 
a) TFR
 
b) GFR
 
c)NRR
 
 
 
166) the following should be done for prophylaxis of rabies in a 1 year
old child except
 
a) wash the wound with soap & water
 
b) give HDCV in the buttock
 
c) HDCV should not be given to HIV pt
 
d)
 
 
 
167) all the following are examples of health promotion except
 
a) stop smoking
 
b) regular exercise
 
c) chemoprophylaxis
 
 
 
168) one of the following helps deliver baby in a community
 
a) health assistant female
 
b) anganwadi worker
 
c) health supervisor
 
d) village health guide
 
 
 
169) Least recurrence of peptic ulcer most commonly occurs in
 
a) selective vagotomy
 
b) TV + GJ
 
c) Pure gastroenterostomy
 
d) TV+ antrectomy
 
 
 
170) CABG has successful outcome and prognosis if done in
 
a) double vessel obstruction
 
b) left coronary artery obstruction without left ventricular
dysfunction
 
c) single vessel obstruction
 
 
 
171) anteversion of uterus is due to following ligament
 
a) uterosacral ligament
 
b) mackenrod's ligament
 
c)
 
d)
 
 
 
172) osteochondroma is a disease of
 
a)metaphysis
 
b) diaphysis
 
c) epiphysis
 
d) periosteum
 
 
 
173) the characteristic symptom of dysmenorrhea , menorrhagia,
recurrent abdominal pain and infertility is suggestive of
 
a) endometriosis
 
b) ectopic
 
c) endometritis
 
d)
 
 
 
174) testicular seminoma, secretes
 
a) ? -FP
 
b) CEA
 
c) B-HCG
 
d)
 
 
 
175) the concentration of HbA1c in blood is
 
a) 4-6%
 
b) 6-8%
 
c) 8-9%
 
d)
 
 
 
176) which of the following is contraindicated in early pregnancy
 
a) heparin
 
b) phenytoin
 
c) chlor****
 
d) penicillin
 
 
 
177) action potential is transmitted to myofibrils via
 
a) terminal cisterns
 
b) T- Tubules
 
c) longitudinal
 
d) sarcomere
 
 
 
178) humidification of O2 is required in
 
a) nasopharyngeal intubation
 
b) nasal prong
 
c) nasal catheter
 
d) face mask
 
 
 
179) meconium plug syndrome occurs in
 
a) meconium ileus
 
b) hirschsprung's disease
 
c) ileo-colic pouch
 
d)
 
 
 
180) the cause of endemic ascites is
 
a) BOAA
 
b) Sanguinarine
 
c) Pyrozzilodine alkaloids
 
d)
 
 
 
181) earliest sign of vitamin A deficiency is
 
a) conjunctival xerosis
 
b) corneal xerosis
 
c) bitot's spot
 
d)nightblindness
 
 
 
182) Pinta is caused by
 
a) T pertenue
 
b) T pallidum
 
c) T carateum
 
d) Borrelia burgdorferi.
 
 
 
183) all the following cause priapism except
 
a) trauma
 
b) Beta thalassemia
 
c) sickle cell disease
 
d) leriche syndrome
 
 
 
184) iridectomy is done in which type of glaucoma is
 
a)
 
c) angle closure
 
b)
 
d) open glaucoma
 
 
 
185) yellow fever is not present in India because of all except
 
a) the virus is absent
 
b) the vector mosquito culex vishnui
 
c) atmospheric condition is suitable
 
 
 
186) phage typing is useful in classification of all except
 
a) staphylococcus
 
b) streptococcus
 
c) cholera
 
d) salmonella
 
 
 
187)in a patient with strikingly abnormal behavior , the most likely
diagnosis is
 
a) paranoid schizophrenia
 
b) catatonic schizophrenia
 
c) hebephrenic schizophrenia
 
d)
 
 
 
188)the revised national TB program uses one of the following for
diagnosis of TB
 
a) sputum AFB
 
b) CXR
 
c) clinical examination
 
d) PCR
 
 
 
189) following are true of rubella except
 
a) IP: 14-21days
 
b) rosy red spots on palate
 
c) encephalitis
 
 
 
190) Acrodynia occurs in
 
a) mercury poisoning
 
b) arsenic poisoning
 
c) lead poisoning
 
d)
 
 
 
191) hydrotherapy is done in
 
a) impotence
 
b) infertility
 
c) febrile convulsion
 
d)
 
 
 
192) hemodialysis is useful in all except
 
a) salicylate poisoning
 
b) methyl alcohol poisoning
 
c) digitalis
 
d) barbiturate
 
 
 
193) proliferation of mesangial cell & perimesangial on microscopy is
seen in
 
a) lg A nephropathy
 
b) lipoid nephrosis
 
c) membranoproliferative disease
 
d) membranous glomerulonephritis
 
 
 
194) point prevalence of a chronic disease is studied best by
 
a) case control study
 
b) cross sectional study
 
c) historical cohort
 
d) cohort
 
 
 
195) reversible cataract is seen in which of following
 
a) galactosemia
 
b) hypoparathyroidism
 
c) diabetes mellitus
 
d)
 
 
 
196) De quervain's thyroiditis is due to all except
 
a) it is due to virus
 
b) antibodies against follicular cells
 
c) it is self limited granulomatous thyroiditis
 
 
 
197)partial prothromboplastin time is prolonged in all except
 
a) protein C deficiency
 
b) protein S deficiency
 
c) antithrombin III deficiency
 
d) factor V deficiency
 
 
 
198) which of the following has least t1/2
 
a) norepinephrine
 
b) adrenaline
 
c) renin
 
d)
 
 
 
199) the treatment of primary ovarian failure is
 
a) FSH
 
b) GnRH
 
c)LH
 
d)estrogen progesterone
 
 
200)LDL cholesterol in blood recommended to prevent coronary artery
disease is
 
a)130mg/dl
 
b)160mg/dl
 
c)100mg/dl
 
d)180mg/dl
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JIPMER pg entrance paper solved questions 2001
FROM AIPPG.COM

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